Geography, Chapter 4: Agriculture MCQs, Assertion–Reason Questions, Map based questions

 Geography, Chapter 4: Agriculture 

MCQs,  Assertion–Reason Questions, Map based questions 

MCQs 

1. Which of the following is a rabi crop?

A. Rice

B. Cotton

C. Wheat

D. Jute

✅ Answer: C

2. Which crop requires high temperature and heavy rainfall?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Bajra

D. Maize

✅ Answer: B

3. The Green Revolution was mainly associated with which crop?

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Millet

D. Pulses

✅ Answer: B

4. Which type of farming is practised in densely populated regions of India?

A. Plantation farming

B. Extensive farming

C. Intensive subsistence farming

D. Shifting farming

✅ Answer: C

5. Which state is the largest producer of sugarcane in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Bihar

D. Karnataka

✅ Answer: B

6. Millets are also known as:

A. Cash crops

B. Fodder crops

C. Coarse grains

D. Plantation crops

✅ Answer: C

7. Which crop is known as the “golden fibre”?

A. Cotton

B. Jute

C. Silk

D. Wool

✅ Answer: B

8. Black soil is best suited for:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Cotton

D. Tea

✅ Answer: C

9. Which farming method uses slash and burn technique?

A. Mixed farming

B. Plantation farming

C. Shifting cultivation

D. Dry farming

✅ Answer: C

10. Which crop is mainly grown in plantation farming?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Tea

D. Pulses

✅ Answer: C

11. Which crop requires cool climate during growth and warm climate during maturity?

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Cotton

D. Jute

✅ Answer: B

12. Which of the following is an example of mixed farming?

A. Only wheat cultivation

B. Only dairy farming

C. Growing crops along with rearing animals

D. Plantation farming

✅ Answer: C

13. Which crop is mainly grown on the black soil of Deccan Plateau?

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Cotton

D. Tea

✅ Answer: C

14. The practice of growing the same crop year after year on the same land is called:

A. Crop rotation

B. Multiple cropping

C. Monoculture

D. Subsistence farming

✅ Answer: C

15. Which Indian state is a leading producer of jute?

A. Assam

B. Odisha

C. Bihar

D. West Bengal

✅ Answer: D

16. Which of the following crops is a rabi crop?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Barley

D. Jute

✅ Answer: C

17. Which factor does NOT affect agricultural productivity?

A. Climate

B. Soil

C. Irrigation

D. Latitude of other countries

✅ Answer: D

18. Which farming system requires high investment of capital and labour?

A. Shifting farming

B. Subsistence farming

C. Plantation farming

D. Dry farming

✅ Answer: C

19. Which crop is sown with the onset of monsoon?

A. Wheat

B. Gram

C. Rice

D. Barley

✅ Answer: C

20. Which crop is known as a “commercial crop”?

A. Bajra

B. Rice

C. Cotton

D. Maize

✅ Answer: C

21. Which crop is mainly grown in the tropical and subtropical regions of India?

A. Wheat

B. Sugarcane

C. Barley

D. Gram

✅ Answer: B

22. Which soil is rich in humus and suitable for agriculture?

A. Desert soil

B. Mountain soil

C. Alluvial soil

D. Laterite soil

✅ Answer: C

23. Which agricultural activity helps in soil conservation?

A. Over-irrigation

B. Monocropping

C. Crop rotation

D. Excessive use of fertilizers

✅ Answer: C

24. Which crop is grown using terrace farming?

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Tea

D. Barley

✅ Answer: A

25. Which of the following is a millet crop?

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Bajra

D. Sugarcane

✅ Answer: C

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS

A. Both A and R are true & R explains A

B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

C. A is true, R is false

D. A is false, R is true

1. Assertion (A): India is a major producer of rice.

Reason (R): Rice requires high temperature and high rainfall.

✅ Answer: B

2. Assertion (A): Wheat is grown in the winter season.

Reason (R): Wheat requires low temperature during sowing and high temperature during ripening.

✅ Answer: A

3. Assertion (A): Millets are called nutritious cereals.

Reason (R): They are rich in fibre, iron and other minerals.

✅ Answer: A

4. Assertion (A): Plantation farming is capital intensive.

Reason (R): It requires cheap labour only.

✅ Answer: C

5. Assertion (A): Agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.

Reason (R): More than half of India’s population depends on agriculture.

✅ Answer: A

 MAP-BASED QUESTIONS: - On the outline political map of India, locate and label:

Major Crop Producing Areas

Rice –

West Bengal / Andhra Pradesh

Wheat –

Punjab / Haryana / Uttar Pradesh

Cotton –

Maharashtra / Gujarat

Jute –

West Bengal

Tea –

 Assam / West Bengal (Darjeeling)

Coffee –

Karnataka

Geography, Chapter 3: Water Resources MCQs, Assertion–Reason Questions, Map based questions

Geography, Chapter 2:  Water Resources

MCQs,  Assertion–Reason Questions, Map based questions 

 MCQs

1. The main cause of water scarcity in India is

A. Low rainfall

B. Uneven distribution of water

C. Over-exploitation of water resources

D. All of the above

Ans: D

2. Which sector uses the maximum water in India?

A. Industrial

B. Domestic

C. Agricultural

D. Transport

Ans: C

3. Multipurpose river valley projects are meant for

A. Irrigation

B. Electricity generation

C. Flood control

D. All of these

Ans: D

4. Bhakra Nangal Project is built on river

A. Ganga

B. Sutlej

C. Yamuna

D. Godavari

Ans: B

5. Tehri Dam is located in

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttarakhand

C. Jammu & Kashmir

D. Sikkim

Ans: B

6. Rainwater harvesting helps in

A. Increasing floods

B. Groundwater recharge

C. River pollution

D. Soil erosion

Ans: B

7. ‘Johads’ are traditional water harvesting structures found in

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

Ans: B

8. ‘Kuls’ are used for irrigation in

A. Rajasthan

B. Punjab

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Assam

Ans: C

9. One major drawback of multipurpose projects is

A. Electricity generation

B. Irrigation

C. Displacement of people

D. Flood control

Ans: C

10. Narmada Bachao Andolan is related to

A. Ganga river

B. Sutlej river

C. Narmada river

D. Godavari river

Ans: C

11. Which of the following causes water pollution?

A. Industrial waste

B. Agricultural chemicals

C. Domestic sewage

D. All of the above

Ans: D

12. Over-extraction of groundwater is common in

A. Rural areas

B. Forest areas

C. Urban areas

D. Coastal areas

Ans: C

13. Which state made rainwater harvesting compulsory?

A. Kerala

B. Punjab

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Rajasthan

Ans: C

14. Water scarcity affects

A. Agriculture

B. Industries

C. Human life

D. All of these

Ans: D

15. Large dams were called the “Temples of Modern India” by

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. B. R. Ambedkar

D. Subhas Chandra Bose

Ans: B

16. Sustainable use of water resources means

A. Overuse of water

B. Conservation of water

C. Industrialisation

D. Urbanisation

Ans: B

17. The oldest method of irrigation is

A. Canals

B. Tubewells

C. Wells

D. Dams

Ans: C

18. Which is NOT a benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A. Groundwater recharge

B. Flood control

C. Water conservation

D. Water pollution

Ans: D

19.Water scarcity is severe in

A. Himalayan region

B. Coastal region

C. Arid and semi-arid regions

D. Delta region

Ans: C

20. Water disputes mainly arise due to

A. Excess rainfall

B. Unequal distribution of water

C. Floods

D. Pollution

Ans: B

21. Industrial waste is often discharged into

A. Fields

B. Roads

C. Rivers

D. Forests

Ans: C

22. Excessive use of water leads to

A. Conservation

B. Scarcity

C. Sustainability

D. Recharge

Ans: B

23. Dams negatively affect

A. Environment

B. Local communities

C. Wildlife

D. All of these

Ans: D

24. The best method to conserve water is

A. Building more dams

B. Rainwater harvesting

C. River linking

D. Industrial expansion

Ans: B

25. Proper management of water resources leads to

A. Exploitation

B. Development

C. Sustainable development

D. Urbanisation

Ans: C

26. Which factor has intensified water scarcity in recent years?

A. Seasonal rainfall

B. Industrialisation and urbanisation

C. Forest cover

D. Traditional irrigation

Ans: B

27. The major aim of multipurpose river valley projects is to

A. Control floods only

B. Generate electricity only

C. Promote integrated development

D. Increase rainfall

Ans: C

28. Which of the following is a social impact of large dams?

A. Soil erosion

B. Loss of biodiversity

C. Displacement of people

D. Water pollution

Ans: C

29. The term “water stress” refers to

A. Excess availability of water

B. Scarcity of water resources

C. High rainfall

D. Flood situation

Ans: B

30. Which traditional water harvesting system is used in western Rajasthan?

A. Kul

B. Johad

C. Ahar-Pyne

D. Surangam

Ans: B

31. Ahar-Pyne system is mainly found in

A. Rajasthan

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Bihar

D. Kerala

Ans: C

32. Which river valley project is the oldest multipurpose project in India?

A. Bhakra Nangal

B. Hirakud

C. Damodar Valley

D. Tehri

Ans: C

33. Large dams have failed to control floods because

A. They reduce rainfall

B. They increase siltation

C. They promote irrigation

D. They store water

Ans: B

34. Which of the following leads to lowering of the water table?

A. Rainwater harvesting

B. Over-irrigation

C. Afforestation

D. Canal irrigation

Ans: B

35. Water pollution is caused when

A. Clean water flows in rivers

B. Untreated sewage enters water bodies

C. Rainwater is stored

D. Water is recycled

Ans: B

36. Which of the following is an environmental consequence of dams?

A. Increased crop yield

B. Submergence of forests

C. Electricity generation

D. Irrigation facilities

Ans: B

37. Which state promotes rooftop rainwater harvesting in urban areas?

A. Punjab

B. Haryana

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Assam

Ans: C

38. Which of the following is the most effective long-term solution to water scarcity?

A. Building more dams

B. Transferring river water

C. Water conservation and management

D. Excess groundwater use

Ans: C

39. The overuse of chemical fertilisers affects water resources by

A. Increasing rainfall

B. Improving groundwater quality

C. Causing water pollution

D. Conserving water

Ans: C

40. Which of the following is a major criticism of large dams?

A. High cost

B. Long construction period

C. Ecological imbalance

D. All of these

Ans: D

41. Water scarcity can exist even in areas of

A. Low rainfall

B. High rainfall

C. Desert regions

D. Plateau regions

Ans: B

42. Which one of the following promotes sustainable water use?

A. Excess irrigation

B. Water-intensive crops

C. Rainwater harvesting

D. River pollution

Ans: C

43. The biggest source of water pollution in rivers is

A. Agricultural runoff

B. Industrial effluents

C. Domestic sewage

D. Mining waste

Ans: C

44. Which crop requires maximum water?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Pulses

D. Millets

Ans: B

45. Which of the following best defines water conservation?

A. Storing water in dams

B. Judicious use of water

C. Using groundwater freely

D. Increasing water consumption

Ans: B

46. Which region faces seasonal water scarcity?

A. Desert regions

B. Areas with irregular rainfall

C. Coastal plains

D. Delta regions

Ans: B

47. The major reason for declining groundwater levels in cities is

A. Traditional wells

B. Excess use of tube wells

C. Rainfall

D. River water

Ans: B

48. Which river project is associated with Odisha?

A. Bhakra Nangal

B. Tehri

C. Hirakud

D. Sardar Sarovar

Ans: C

49. Water disputes between states arise mainly due to

A. Climate change

B. Unequal access to water

C. Floods

D. Cyclones

Ans: B

50. Which one is NOT a traditional water harvesting system?

A. Johad

B. Kul

C. Tanka

D. Tube well

Ans: D

51. Which factor does NOT contribute to water scarcity?

A. Population growth

B. Industrialisation

C. Water conservation

D. Urbanisation

Ans: C

52. Excessive dam construction affects rivers by

A. Increasing natural flow

B. Interrupting sediment flow

C. Reducing evaporation

D. Improving biodiversity

Ans: B

54. Which practice helps in improving groundwater recharge?

A. Paving open land

B. Rainwater harvesting

C. Excess pumping

D. Industrial waste disposal

Ans: B

55. Which of the following is a demand-side solution to water scarcity?

A. Building reservoirs

B. Water conservation

C. River linking

D. Dam construction

Ans: B

56. Sustainable water management aims at

A. Maximum water use

B. Long-term availability of water

C. Short-term benefits

D. Industrial expansion

Ans: B

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS (10)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

1. A: Water scarcity is increasing in India.

R: Water resources are being over-exploited.

Ans: A

2. A: Dams help in economic development.

R: They provide irrigation and hydroelectric power.

Ans: A

3. A: Multipurpose projects are opposed by many people.

R: They cause displacement of local communities.

Ans: A

4. A: Rainwater harvesting is necessary.

R: Groundwater level is declining.

Ans: A

5. A: Industrialisation leads to water pollution.

R: Industries discharge untreated waste into rivers.

Ans: A

6. A: Water resources are unlimited.

R: Water cycle continues naturally.

Ans: D

7. A: Traditional water harvesting systems were effective.

R: They were suited to local conditions.

Ans: A

8. A: Urban areas face severe water scarcity.

R: There is excessive extraction of groundwater.

Ans: A

9. A: Agriculture uses very little water.

R: Irrigation requires large amount of water.

Ans: D

10. A: Sustainable development is essential.

R: Resources must be conserved for future generations.

Ans: A

MAP-BASED IDENTIFICATION QUESTIONS (INDIA MAP)

Q1. On the political map of India, a dam marked on the Sutlej River in Punjab–Himachal region is

A. Tehri Dam

B. Bhakra Nangal Dam

C. Hirakud Dam

D. Sardar Sarovar Dam

Ans: B

Q2. Identify the dam marked on the Mahanadi River in Odisha.

A. Bhakra

B. Tehri

C. Hirakud

D. Nagarjuna Sagar

Ans: C

Q3. A dam marked in Uttarakhand on the Bhagirathi River is

A. Hirakud

B. Tehri

C. Sardar Sarovar

D. Rihand

Ans: B

Q4. Which dam is marked on the Narmada River in Gujarat–Madhya Pradesh region?

A. Bhakra Nangal

B. Nagarjuna Sagar

C. Sardar Sarovar

D. Tehri

Ans: C

Q5. Identify the dam built on the Krishna River marked in Telangana–Andhra Pradesh region.

A. Hirakud

B. Nagarjuna Sagar

C. Bhakra

D. Tehri

Ans: B

Q6. A dam marked on the Damodar River in Jharkhand–West Bengal is

A. Tehri

B. Bhakra

C. Damodar Valley Project

D. Sardar Sarovar

Ans: C

Class - 10 Economics, Chapter - 1, Development MCQs,Assertion–Reason.

Class - 10 Economics, Chapter - 1, Development

 MCQs,Assertion–Reason.

MCQs

1. Development of a country is generally measured by

A. Literacy rate

B. Per capita income

C. Health facilities

D. Life expectancy

Ans: B

2. Per capita income means

A. Total income of the country

B. Total income ÷ total population

C. Income of rich people

D. Income of government

Ans: B

3. Which organisation publishes the World Development Report?

A. IMF

B. WTO

C. World Bank

D. UNDP

Ans: C

4. Average income of a country is also called

A. National income

B. Per capita income

C. Gross income

D. Disposable income

Ans: B

5. If total income of a country increases but population increases faster, per capita income will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. Become zero

Ans: B

6. Which of the following is a non-material indicator of development?

A. Income

B. House

C. Education

D. Car

Ans: C

7. Infant Mortality Rate indicates

A. Health condition

B. Education level

C. Income level

D. Employment

Ans: A

8. HDI is published by

A. World Bank

B. IMF

C. UNDP

D. WHO

Ans: C

9. Which of the following is included in HDI?

A. Per capita income

B. Life expectancy

C. Literacy rate

D. All of these

Ans: D

10. Sustainable development means

A. High growth

B. Growth without future harm

C. Industrial development

D. Urban development

Ans: B

11. Which state has higher per capita income?

A. Bihar

B. Haryana

C. Odisha

D. Assam

Ans: B

12. Development goals may vary because

A. People have same needs

B. People have different needs

C. Government decides

D. Income is equal

Ans: B

13. Which sector causes maximum pollution?

A. Agriculture

B. Service

C. Industrial

D. Household

Ans: C

14. HDI rank improves if

A. Income increases only

B. Education improves only

C. Health improves only

D. All improve together

Ans: D

15. Which is a renewable resource?

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Forest

D. Natural gas

Ans: C

16. Which of the following is a public facility?

A. Private school

B. Shopping mall

C. Hospital

D. Five-star hotel

Ans: C

17. A rise in national income does not guarantee

A. Economic growth

B. Equal distribution

C. Development

D. Employment

Ans: B

18. BMI is related to

A. Education

B. Income

C. Health

D. Employment

Ans: C

19. Development includes

A. Economic growth only

B. Social progress only

C. Overall improvement

D. Industrial growth

Ans: C

20. Which factor is most important for sustainable development?

A. Overuse of resources

B. Conservation

C. Urbanisation

D. Industrialisation

Ans: B

21. Which of the following is the best indicator to compare living standards of different countries?

A. Total income

B. National income

C. Per capita income

D. Gross income

Ans: C

22. If a country’s population doubles but income remains same, per capita income will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unchanged

D. Become zero

Ans: B

23. Which of the following reflects quality of life?

A. Income alone

B. Literacy rate

C. Life expectancy

D. Both B and C

Ans: D

24. What is the main limitation of per capita income?

A. Difficult to calculate

B. Ignores distribution of income

C. Not published

D. Includes services

Ans: B

25. Which indicator is used to measure health status?

A. Literacy rate

B. BMI

C. Infant Mortality Rate

D. Per capita income

Ans: C

26. Which of the following is NOT included in HDI?

A. Income

B. Education

C. Life expectancy

D. Population density

Ans: D

27. Development refers to

A. Increase in income only

B. Increase in production

C. Overall improvement in well-being

D. Industrial growth

Ans: C

28. Sustainable development focuses on

A. Present needs only

B. Future needs only

C. Both present and future needs

D. Industrialisation

Ans: C

29. Which of the following is a renewable resource?

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Wind energy

D. Natural gas

Ans: C

30. Which organisation publishes HDI?

A. World Bank

B. IMF

C. UNDP

D. WTO

Ans: C

31. A high infant mortality rate indicates

A. Good health facilities

B. Poor health conditions

C. High literacy

D. High income

Ans: B

32. What does literacy rate measure?

A. Income level

B. Employment

C. Percentage of literate people

D. Population growth

Ans: C

33. Which public facility directly improves health?

A. Roads

B. Transport

C. Hospitals

D. Markets

Ans: C

34. Which of the following can improve HDI rank?

A. Higher pollution

B. Better education and health

C. Higher population

D. Resource depletion

Ans: B

35. Development goals are different because

A. People are selfish

B. Needs vary among individuals

C. Government decides

D. Income is same

Ans: B

36. Which of the following is an example of non-material goal?

A. Car

B. House

C. Respect and security

D. Income

Ans: C

37. Which factor is essential for sustainable development?

A. Overuse of resources

B. Conservation

C. Deforestation

D. Industrial waste

Ans: B

38. Why are public facilities important?

A. They increase profit

B. They are luxury services

C. They improve quality of life

D. They increase population

Ans: C

39. National income does NOT show

A. Economic growth

B. Average income

C. Income inequality

D. Production

Ans: C

40. Which state generally has higher per capita income?

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Haryana

D. Odisha

Ans: C

41. Development includes

A. Economic growth only

B. Social and economic progress

C. Industrial growth only

D. Urbanisation

Ans: B

42. Which resource should be used judiciously?

A. Unlimited resources

B. Renewable resources

C. Non-renewable resources

D. Artificial resources

Ans: C

43. What is the main aim of development?

A. Maximum production

B. Profit making

C. Better life for people

D. Industrial expansion

Ans: C

44. Which indicator shows educational development?

A. Per capita income

B. Literacy rate

C. Life expectancy

D. IMR

Ans: B

45. Why income alone cannot ensure development?

A. It ignores health and education

B. It is difficult to measure

C. It is not useful

D. It is imaginary

Ans: A

46. Which of the following improves environmental sustainability?

A. Deforestation

B. Excess mining

C. Rainwater harvesting

D. Industrial waste

Ans: C

47. HDI value ranges between

A. 0 – 5

B. 0 – 10

C. 0 – 1

D. 1 – 100

Ans: C

48. Which country is generally ranked higher in HDI?

A. Low literacy country

B. High IMR country

C. High education & health country

D. Overpopulated country

Ans: C

49. Which sector contributes most to pollution?

A. Agriculture

B. Services

C. Industry

D. Household

Ans: C

50. Sustainable development ensures

A. Resource exhaustion

B. Long-term development

C. Fast growth

D. Industrial dominance

Ans: B

 Assertion – Reason Questions (10)

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A): Per capita income is used to compare countries.

Reason (R): It shows average income of people.

Ans: A

2. A: Different people have different development goals.

R: People live in different social and economic conditions.

Ans: A

3. A: HDI is a better indicator than per capita income.

R: HDI includes health and education indicators.

Ans: A

4. A: High income ensures high development.

R: Development depends only on income.

Ans: D

5. A: Sustainable development is necessary.

R: Resources are limited and exhaustible.

Ans: A

6. A: Literacy rate shows educational development.

R: It shows percentage of literate people.

Ans: A

7. A: Public facilities improve quality of life.

R: They are accessible to all people.

Ans: A

8. A: Industrialisation causes environmental degradation.

R: Industries release pollutants.

Ans: A

9. A: National income alone is sufficient to measure development.

R: It ignores inequality.

Ans: C

10. A: Infant mortality rate is high in developing countries.

R: Health facilities are inadequate.

Ans: A

CBSE की नई परीक्षा नीति क्या है? (कक्षा 10) CBSE ने निर्णय लिया है कि 2026 से कक्षा 10 की बोर्ड परीक्षा साल में दो बार होगी।

 CBSE की नई परीक्षा नीति क्या है? (कक्षा 10)

CBSE ने निर्णय लिया है कि 2026 से कक्षा 10 की बोर्ड परीक्षा साल में दो बार होगी।

1️⃣ पहली परीक्षा (मुख्य परीक्षा)

• अनिवार्य (Compulsory)
• सभी छात्रों को इसमें बैठना होगा
• आमतौर पर फरवरी–मार्च में होगी
• पूरे सिलेबस पर आधारित होगी

2️⃣ दूसरी परीक्षा (वैकल्पिक / सुधार परीक्षा)

वैकल्पिक (Optional)

आमतौर पर मई–जून में होगी

इसका उद्देश्य है:

अंक सुधार (Improvement)

कम्पार्टमेंट

विशेष परिस्थितियाँ

 दोनों परीक्षाओं में से बेहतर अंक को अंतिम परिणाम माना जाएगा।

दूसरी परीक्षा में कौन बैठ सकता है?

✔ 1. अंक सुधार (Improvement) के लिए

• जो छात्र पहली परीक्षा में पास हो चुके हैं
• लेकिन अपने अंक बढ़ाना चाहते हैं
• ऐसे छात्र अधिकतम 3 मुख्य विषयों (Maths, Science, SST, Languages) में दूसरी परीक्षा दे सकते हैं

✔ 2. कम्पार्टमेंट वाले छात्र

• जो छात्र पहली परीक्षा में 1 या 2 विषयों में फेल हो गए हों
• वे उन्हीं विषयों में दूसरी परीक्षा (Compartment) दे सकते हैं

✔ 3. विशेष परिस्थितियों वाले छात्र

• खेल प्रतियोगिता के कारण पहली परीक्षा छूट गई हो
• विंटर-बाउंड स्कूल (जैसे पहाड़ी क्षेत्र)
• विशेष आवश्यकता वाले छात्र (CWSN)

ऐसे मामलों में CBSE दूसरी परीक्षा की अनुमति दे सकता है

दूसरी परीक्षा में कौन नहीं बैठ सकता?

1. जो पहली परीक्षा में शामिल ही नहीं हुए

• अगर कोई छात्र पहली परीक्षा में 3 या उससे अधिक विषयों में अनुपस्थित रहा
• उसे Essential Repeat माना जाएगा
• वह उसी साल दूसरी परीक्षा नहीं दे सकता

2. विषय बाँटकर परीक्षा देने वाले छात्र :- ऐसा नहीं हो सकता कि:

• कुछ विषय पहली परीक्षा में
• और कुछ विषय केवल दूसरी परीक्षा में दिए जाएँ

पहली परीक्षा सभी विषयों के लिए अनिवार्य है

📌 महत्वपूर्ण बातें (Exam-Oriented)

✔ पहली परीक्षा हर हाल में देनी होगी

✔ दूसरी परीक्षा केवल सुधार / कम्पार्टमेंट के लिए है

✔ दोनों परीक्षाओं का पूरा सिलेबस समान होगा

✔ बेहतर अंक को ही फाइनल रिज़ल्ट माना जाएगा

✔ इससे छात्रों पर परीक्षा का तनाव कम होगा

🧾 उदाहरण से समझिए

स्थिति                                                                                         दूसरी परीक्षा दे सकता है?

सभी विषयों में पास, अंक बढ़ाना चाहता है                                             ✅ हाँ

1–2 विषयों में फेल                                                                                     ✅ हाँ

3 या अधिक विषयों में अनुपस्थित                                                             ❌ नहीं

पहली परीक्षा पूरी तरह छोड़ दी                                                             ❌ नहीं

खेल/विशेष कारण से परीक्षा छूटी                                                             ✅ हाँ (विशेष अनुमति से)

Geography, Chapter 2: Forest and Wildlife Resources 50 MCQs, Assertion–Reason Questions

Geography, Chapter 2: Forest and Wildlife Resources 

50 MCQs,  Assertion–Reason Questions 

1. Species which are on the verge of extinction are called:

a) Normal species

b) Endemic species

c) Endangered species

d) Rare species

✅ Ans: c

2. Which of the following is an extinct species?

a) Asiatic Lion

b) Dodo

c) Tiger

d) Rhino

✅ Ans: b

3. Species found only in a particular region are known as:

a) Endangered

b) Rare

c) Endemic

d) Extinct

✅ Ans: c

4. Which movement was related to forest conservation?

a) Narmada Bachao Andolan

b) Chipko Movement

c) Quit India Movement

d) Swadeshi Movement

✅ Ans: b

5. The main cause of depletion of forests is:

a) Rainfall

b) Deforestation

c) Conservation

d) Plantation

✅ Ans: b

6. Sacred Groves are protected due to:

a) Government law

b) Economic value

c) Religious beliefs

d) Tourism

✅ Ans: c

7. Which of the following is a normal species?

a) Tiger

b) Cow

c) Asiatic Lion

d) Rhino

✅ Ans: b

8. Which project was launched to protect tigers in India?

a) Project Lion

b) Project Rhino

c) Project Tiger

d) Project Elephant

✅ Ans: c

9. Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in:

a) 1951

b) 1965

c) 1972

d) 1985

✅ Ans: c

10. Which of the following leads to forest degradation?

a) Plantation

b) Overgrazing

c) Conservation

d) Afforestation

✅ Ans: b

11. Which state has the largest forest cover in India?

a) Rajasthan

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Punjab

d) Haryana

✅ Ans: b

12. Biodiversity refers to:

a) Forest land only

b) Animal species only

c) Variety of plant and animal life

d) Plantation

✅ Ans: c

13. Which of the following is a rare species?

a) Tiger

b) Asiatic Elephant

c) Himalayan Brown Bear

d) Cow

✅ Ans: c

14. Joint Forest Management involves:

a) Government only

b) Industries

c) Local communities

d) Private companies

✅ Ans: c

15. Which activity causes maximum forest loss?

a) Agriculture expansion

b) Rainfall

c) Conservation

d) Plantation

✅ Ans: a

16. Which of the following is not a cause of forest depletion?

a) Mining

b) Urbanisation

c) Industrialisation

d) Afforestation

✅ Ans: d

17. Forests help in:

a) Increasing pollution

b) Soil erosion

c) Maintaining ecological balance

d) Industrial growth

✅ Ans: c

18. Which species has already disappeared from Earth?

a) Dodo

b) Tiger

c) Lion

d) Elephant

✅ Ans: a

19. Fuelwood collection leads to:

a) Conservation

b) Forest degradation

c) Rainfall increase

d) Biodiversity growth

✅ Ans: b

20. Which of the following is an endangered species?

a) Cow

b) Dog

c) Tiger

d) Goat

✅ Ans: c

21. Forests control climate by:

a) Increasing heat

b) Reducing rainfall

c) Maintaining temperature

d) Causing pollution

✅ Ans: c

22. Overgrazing results in:

a) Soil erosion

b) Afforestation

c) Conservation

d) Rainfall

✅ Ans: a

23. Which of the following is NOT wildlife?

a) Tiger

b) Deer

c) Cow

d) Lion

✅ Ans: c

24. Forests are renewable resources because:

a) They never finish

b) They can be regenerated

c) They are cheap

d) They grow fast everywhere

✅ Ans: b

25. Mining affects forests because:

a) Trees grow faster

b) Large areas are cleared

c) Rainfall increases

d) Wildlife increases

✅ Ans: b

26. Which is a protected area for wildlife?

a) Industrial zone

b) Wildlife sanctuary

c) Agricultural field

d) Urban area

✅ Ans: b

27. Which forest category is most restricted?

a) Reserved forests

b) Protected forests

c) Unclassed forests

d) Private forests

✅ Ans: a

28. Which of the following is an endemic species of India?

a) Kangaroo

b) Nilgiri Tahr

c) Panda

d) Polar Bear

✅ Ans: b

29. Forests help agriculture by:

a) Destroying soil

b) Maintaining water cycle

c) Increasing pollution

d) Reducing fertility

✅ Ans: b

30. Which of the following causes habitat destruction?

a) Conservation

b) Deforestation

c) Plantation

d) Protection

✅ Ans: b

31. Wildlife conservation helps in:

a) Loss of species

b) Genetic diversity

c) Pollution

d) Urbanisation

✅ Ans: b

32. Which forest movement involved hugging trees?

a) Appiko

b) Chipko

c) Silent Valley

d) Jungle Bachao

✅ Ans: b

33. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of forests?

a) Oxygen supply

b) Soil conservation

c) Pollution

d) Biodiversity

✅ Ans: c

34. Which group depends directly on forests?

a) Industrialists

b) Tribal communities

c) Tourists

d) Urban people

✅ Ans: b

35. What does conservation mean?

a) Destruction

b) Careful use of resources

c) Overuse

d) Ignoring nature

✅ Ans: b

36. Which animal is protected under Project Elephant?

a) Lion

b) Tiger

c) Elephant

d) Rhino

✅ Ans: c

37. Which factor increases forest cover in India?

a) Mining

b) Plantation

c) Urbanisation

d) Industrialisation

✅ Ans: b

38. Which of the following is a man-made cause of forest loss?

a) Earthquake

b) Cyclone

c) Agriculture expansion

d) Flood

✅ Ans: c

39. Forests prevent floods by:

a) Increasing runoff

b) Absorbing rainwater

c) Blocking rivers

d) Reducing rainfall

✅ Ans: b

40. Wildlife includes:

a) Only animals

b) Only birds

c) All wild plants and animals

d) Domestic animals

✅ Ans: c

41. Which forest type is most valuable?

a) Unclassed forest

b) Reserved forest

c) Open land

d) Agricultural land

✅ Ans: b

42. Deforestation leads to:

a) Soil fertility

b) Ecological imbalance

c) More rainfall

d) Biodiversity growth

✅ Ans: b

43. Which species population is declining rapidly?

a) Normal

b) Endangered

c) Domestic

d) Common

✅ Ans: b

44. Which organisation protects forests in India?

a) Police

b) Forest Department

c) Army

d) Panchayat

✅ Ans: b

45. Which activity promotes conservation?

a) Overgrazing

b) Mining

c) Afforestation

d) Deforestation

✅ Ans: c

46. Which is NOT a reason for biodiversity loss?

a) Pollution

b) Habitat destruction

c) Conservation

d) Overexploitation

✅ Ans: c

47. Forests are called green lungs because they:

a) Release carbon dioxide

b) Absorb oxygen

c) Absorb carbon dioxide

d) Increase pollution

✅ Ans: c

48. Which forest area is least protected?

a) Reserved forest

b) Protected forest

c) Unclassed forest

d) National park

✅ Ans: c

49. Conservation is important because:

a) Resources are unlimited

b) Resources are limited

c) Nature destroys itself

d) Development stops

✅ Ans: b

50. Which of the following best describes sustainable development?

a) Overuse of resources

b) Ignoring future needs

c) Development without harming nature

d) Industrial growth only

✅ Ans: c

 Assertion – Reason Questions

(Options: a) Both A & R are true and R explains A

b) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A

c) A is true, R is false

d) A is false, R is true)

1. A: Forests maintain ecological balance.

R: Forests support biodiversity and climate regulation.

✅ Ans: a

2. A: Deforestation causes soil erosion.

R: Tree roots hold the soil together.

✅ Ans: a

3. A: Sacred Groves are still found in India.

R: Local communities protect them due to religious beliefs.

✅ Ans: a

4. A: Biodiversity is important for human survival.

R: It provides food, medicine and oxygen.

✅ Ans: a

5. A: Industrialisation helps forest conservation.

R: Industries destroy natural habitats.

✅ Ans: d

6. A: Joint Forest Management has failed.

R: It involves local people in conservation.

✅ Ans: d

7. A: Wildlife protection is unnecessary today.

R: Many species are endangered.

✅ Ans: d

8. A: Overgrazing damages forests.

R: It destroys young plants.

✅ Ans: a

9. A: Project Tiger was launched to increase tiger population.

R: Tigers were declining rapidly.

✅ Ans: a

10. A: Conservation ensures resources for future generations.

R: Natural resources are limited.

✅ Ans: a

Geography – Chapter 1: Resources and Development EXAM-ORIENTED IMPORTANT QUESTIONS As per CBSE Board Exam Pattern 2026 Includes MCQs, Assertion–Reason & Map-based questions

Geography – Chapter 1: Resources and Development

EXAM-ORIENTED IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

As per CBSE Board Exam Pattern 2026

Includes MCQs, Assertion–Reason & Map-based questions

1. Everything available in the environment which can be used to satisfy human needs is called

A. Utility

B. Resource

C. Technology

D. Capital

✅ Answer: B

2. Which of the following is NOT a resource?

A. Water

B. Minerals

C. Human beings

D. Technology

✅ Answer: D

3. On the basis of origin, resources are classified into

A. Renewable and Non-renewable

B. Biotic and Abiotic

C. Individual and Community

D. National and International

✅ Answer: B

4. Coal is an example of

A. Renewable resource

B. Biotic resource

C. Non-renewable resource

D. Human-made resource

✅ Answer: C

5. Resources which are owned privately by individuals are called

A. National resources

B. Community resources

C. Individual resources

D. International resources

✅ Answer: C

6. Which of the following is a biotic resource?

A. Iron ore

B. Soil

C. Water

D. Forest

✅ Answer: D

7. Which resource can be replenished naturally?

A. Petroleum

B. Coal

C. Wind energy

D. Minerals

✅ Answer: C

8. Resources which are found but not fully used are called

A. Developed resources

B. Stock

C. Potential resources

D. Reserves

✅ Answer: C

9. The total quantity of resource available in nature is called

A. Reserve

B. Stock

C. Potential

D. Developed

✅ Answer: B

10. Which of the following is a human-made resource?

A. Soil

B. Forest

C. Buildings

D. Water

✅ Answer: C

11. Sustainable development means

A. Maximum use of resources

B. Development without harming future needs

C. Industrial development only

D. Use of non-renewable resources

✅ Answer: B

12. Which practice supports sustainable development?

A. Over-irrigation

B. Deforestation

C. Resource conservation

D. Excessive mining

✅ Answer: C

13. The idea of sustainable development was popularised by

A. Brundtland Commission

B. UNO

C. World Bank

D. IMF

✅ Answer: A

14. Which factor is essential to make a substance a resource?

A. Availability

B. Utility

C. Quantity

D. Price

✅ Answer: B

15. Which of the following is an abiotic resource?

A. Fish

B. Forest

C. Water

D. Animals

✅ Answer: C

16. Resources which belong to the country are called

A. Individual resources

B. Community resources

C. National resources

D. International resources

✅ Answer: C

17. Ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles fall under

A. National resources

B. Community resources

C. Individual resources

D. International resources

✅ Answer: D

18. Which resource is owned by the community?

A. Private well

B. Grazing land

C. Plantation

D. Factory

✅ Answer: B

19. Resources whose quantity is known but are not being used are

A. Stock

B. Reserves

C. Potential

D. Developed

✅ Answer: C

20. Which resource is a part of stock?

A. Wind energy

B. Petroleum

C. Solar energy

D. Water in dams

✅ Answer: B

21. Which factor is essential to make a substance a resource?
A. Availability
B. Utility
C. Quantity
D. Price
✅ Answer: B

22. Which of the following is an abiotic resource?
A. Fish
B. Forest
C. Water
D. Animals
✅ Answer: C

23. Resources which belong to the country are called
A. Individual resources
B. Community resources
C. National resources
D. International resources
✅ Answer: C

24. Ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles fall under
A. National resources
B. Community resources
C. Individual resources
D. International resources
✅ Answer: D

25. Which resource is owned by the community?
A. Private well
B. Grazing land
C. Plantation
D. Factory
✅ Answer: B

26. Resources whose quantity is known but are not being used are

A. Stock
B. Reserves
C. Potential
D. Developed
✅ Answer: C

27. Which resource is a part of stock?
A. Wind energy
B. Petroleum
C. Solar energy
D. Water in dams
✅ Answer: B

28. Reserves differ from stock because reserves
A. Cannot be used
B. Can be used with existing technology
C. Are unlimited
D. Are renewable
✅ Answer: B

29. Which is a developed resource?
A. Wind energy in Rajasthan
B. Uranium in Ladakh
C. Minerals whose quantity is surveyed
D. Water in oceans
✅ Answer: C

30. Which is a renewable resource?

A. Coal
B. Petroleum
C. Natural gas
D. Solar energy
✅ Answer: D

31. Fossil fuels are classified as
A. Renewable
B. Biotic
C. Non-renewable
D. Human-made
✅ Answer: C

32. Which non-renewable resource is most used in India?
A. Coal
B. Uranium
C. Gold
D. Copper
✅ Answer: A

33. The main aim of sustainable development is to

A. Increase production
B. Conserve resources
C. Meet present needs without harming future needs
D. Promote industries
✅ Answer: C

34. Which activity supports sustainable development?
A. Deforestation
B. Mining without planning
C. Rainwater harvesting
D. Over-irrigation
✅ Answer: C

35. Resource planning is necessary because
A. Resources are unlimited
B. Resources are unevenly distributed
C. All resources are renewable
D. India has surplus resources
✅ Answer: B

36. Which soil is ideal for cotton cultivation?

A. Alluvial
B. Red
C. Black
D. Laterite
✅ Answer: C

37. Alluvial soil is mainly found in
A. Peninsular Plateau
B. Northern Plains
C. Coastal Plains
D. Thar Desert
✅ Answer: B

38. Which soil is rich in iron?
A. Black soil
B. Alluvial soil
C. Red soil
D. Laterite soil
✅ Answer: C

39. Laterite soil develops in areas with
A. Low rainfall
B. Moderate rainfall
C. Heavy rainfall
D. Desert climate
✅ Answer: C

40. Soil erosion is mainly caused by
A. Afforestation
B. Over-irrigation
C. Ploughing
D. Terrace farming
✅ Answer: B

41. Which method reduces soil erosion on steep slopes?

A. Strip cropping
B. Terrace farming
C. Shelter belts
D. Mulching
✅ Answer: B

42. Planting trees in rows to check wind erosion is called
A. Contour ploughing
B. Terrace farming
C. Shelter belts
D. Crop rotation
✅ Answer: C

43. Contour ploughing is practiced on
A. Plains
B. Plateaus
C. Slopes
D. Deserts
✅ Answer: C

44. Overgrazing leads to
A. Soil formation
B. Soil conservation
C. Soil erosion
D. Afforestation
✅ Answer: C

45. Which soil is known as Regur soil?
A. Red soil
B. Black soil
C. Alluvial soil
D. Laterite soil

✅ Answer: B. 

46. Which is a developed resource?

A. Wind energy in Rajasthan

B. Uranium in Ladakh

C. Minerals whose quantity is surveyed

D. Water in oceans

✅ Answer: C

47. Which is a renewable resource?

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Natural gas

D. Solar energy

✅ Answer: D

48. Fossil fuels are classified as

A. Renewable

B. Biotic

C. Non-renewable

D. Human-made

✅ Answer: C

49. Which non-renewable resource is most used in India?

A. Coal

B. Uranium

C. Gold

D. Copper

✅ Answer: A

50. The main aim of sustainable development is to

A. Increase production

B. Conserve resources

C. Meet present needs without harming future needs

D. Promote industries

✅ Answer: C

51. Which activity supports sustainable development?

A. Deforestation

B. Mining without planning

C. Rainwater harvesting

D. Over-irrigation

✅ Answer: C

52. Resource planning is necessary because

A. Resources are unlimited

B. Resources are unevenly distributed

C. All resources are renewable

D. India has surplus resources

✅ Answer: B

53. Which soil is ideal for cotton cultivation?

A. Alluvial

B. Red

C. Black

D. Laterite

✅ Answer: C

54. Alluvial soil is mainly found in

A. Peninsular Plateau

B. Northern Plains

C. Coastal Plains

D. Thar Desert

✅ Answer: B

55. Which soil is rich in iron?

A. Black soil

B. Alluvial soil

C. Red soil

D. Laterite soil

✅ Answer: C

56. Laterite soil develops in areas with

A. Low rainfall

B. Moderate rainfall

C. Heavy rainfall

D. Desert climate

✅ Answer: C

58. Soil erosion is mainly caused by

A. Afforestation

B. Over-irrigation

C. Ploughing

D. Terrace farming

✅ Answer: B

59. Which method reduces soil erosion on steep slopes?

A. Strip cropping

B. Terrace farming

C. Shelter belts

D. Mulching

✅ Answer: B

60. Planting trees in rows to check wind erosion is called

A. Contour ploughing

B. Terrace farming

C. Shelter belts

D. Crop rotation

✅ Answer: C

61. Contour ploughing is practiced on

A. Plains

B. Plateaus

C. Slopes

D. Deserts

✅ Answer: C

62. Overgrazing leads to

A. Soil formation

B. Soil conservation

C. Soil erosion

D. Afforestation

✅ Answer: C

63. Which soil is known as Regur soil?

A. Red soil

B. Black soil

C. Alluvial soil

D. Laterite soil

✅ Answer: B

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

64. Assertion (A): Resources are unevenly distributed over the earth.

Reason (R): Physical and human factors differ from place to place.

✅ Answer: A

65. Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources take millions of years to form.

Reason (R): They can be replenished easily.

✅ Answer: C

66. Assertion (A): Human beings are essential components of resources.

Reason (R): They transform natural resources into usable form.

✅ Answer: A

67. Assertion (A): Sustainable development ignores environmental protection.

Reason (R): It focuses only on present needs.

✅ Answer: D

✅ Answer: C

MAP-BASED QUESTIONS (VERY IMPORTANT)

Map Work: Major Soils of India

• On the outline map of India, locate and label:
• Alluvial Soil – Northern Plains
• Black Soil – Maharashtra / Deccan Plateau
• Red Soil – Tamil Nadu / Karnataka
• Laterite Soil – Western Ghats
• Soil Erosion Control (Identification Type)

Picture/Map-based Question:

Which method of soil conservation is shown?

A. Terrace farming

B. Strip cropping

C. Contour ploughing

D. Shelter belts

✅ Correct answers depend on picture

(Terrace farming & Contour ploughing are MOST IMPORTANT for boards)

Chapter 5: Print Culture and the Modern World IMPORTANT EXAM-ORIENTED QUESTIONS MCQs, Assertion–Reason & Picture-based questions

 Chapter 5: Print Culture and the Modern World

IMPORTANT EXAM-ORIENTED QUESTIONS 

MCQs, Assertion–Reason & Picture-based questions

 MCQs 

1. Printing technology was first developed in

A. Europe

B. China

C. India

D. Arabia

✔ Ans: B

2. Woodblock printing was widely used in

A. Japan and China

B. India and Persia

C. Europe

D. Africa

✔ Ans: A

3. Who invented the printing press in Europe?

A. Marco Polo

B. Martin Luther

C. Gutenberg

D. Erasmus

✔ Ans: C

4. Gutenberg’s first printed book was

A. Quran

B. Ramayana

C. Bible

D. Gita

✔ Ans: C

5. Print culture reduced the cost of

A. Education

B. Knowledge

C. Books

D. Writing

✔ Ans: C

6. Manuscripts were

A. Printed books

B. Handwritten books

C. Digital books

D. Illustrated books

✔ Ans: B

7. Print helped spread

A. Superstitions

B. Ignorance

C. New ideas

D. Censorship

✔ Ans: C

8. Which group benefited most initially from print?

A. Peasants

B. Nobility

C. Workers

D. Slaves

✔ Ans: B

9. Cheap books sold in Europe were called

A. Almanacs

B. Chapbooks

C. Manuscripts

D. Journals

✔ Ans: B

10. Print revolution led to

A. Decrease in literacy

B. Increase in reading habit

C. End of religion

D. Decline of knowledge

✔ Ans: B

11. Who supported print to spread reforms?

A. Napoleon

B. Martin Luther

C. Hitler

D. Bismarck

✔ Ans: B

12. Reformation was related to

A. Science

B. Education

C. Religion

D. Politics

✔ Ans: C

13. Print culture created fear of

A. Illiteracy

B. Censorship

C. Knowledge

D. Trade

✔ Ans: B

14. Literacy increased due to

A. Schools only

B. Print culture

C. Colonisation

D. War

✔ Ans: B

15. Print helped challenge

A. Democracy

B. Authority

C. Education

D. Trade

✔ Ans: B

16. First printed book in India was in

A. Hindi

B. Urdu

C. Portuguese

D. Bengali

✔ Ans: C

17. Printing press came to India with

A. British

B. Dutch

C. Portuguese

D. French

✔ Ans: C

18. Raja Ram Mohan Roy started

A. Kesari

B. Sambad Kaumudi

C. Hindu

D. Yugantar

✔ Ans: B

19. Newspapers helped in

A. Supporting British

B. Spreading nationalism

C. Ending education

D. Promoting caste

✔ Ans: B

20. Vernacular Press Act was passed in

A. 1857

B. 1878

C. 1905

D. 1919

✔ Ans: B

21. Vernacular Press Act aimed to

A. Support Indian press

B. Control Indian press

C. Encourage nationalism

D. Promote education

✔ Ans: B

22. Print culture helped social reforms like

A. Sati abolition

B. Caste discrimination

C. Untouchability support

D. Child labour

✔ Ans: A

23. Women readers increased because

A. Books were free

B. Education expanded

C. British forced it

D. Schools closed

✔ Ans: B

24. Cheap novels were popular among

A. Kings

B. Workers

C. Officers

D. Priests

✔ Ans: B

25. Print created public opinion by

A. Rumours

B. Books and newspapers

C. Wars

D. Speeches

✔ Ans: B

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS

(Choose the correct option)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

26. Assertion (A): Print culture played an important role in the Reformation.

Reason (R): Printed books spread new ideas quickly among people.

✔ Answer: A

27. Assertion (A): The Church opposed the printing press.

Reason (R): Print challenged its religious authority.

✔ Answer: A

28. Assertion (A): Print culture helped nationalism in India.

Reason (R): Newspapers and books spread nationalist ideas.

✔ Answer: A

29. Assertion (A): Women writers increased with print culture.

Reason (R): Education of women increased due to print.

✔ Answer: A

30. Assertion (A): Vernacular Press Act supported freedom of press.

Reason (R): It allowed Indian newspapers to criticize the government.

✔ Answer: C

31. Assertion (A): Cheap novels increased reading habit among workers.

Reason (R): Books became affordable due to print technology.

✔ Answer: A

 PART C: PICTURE-BASED QUESTIONS (VERY IMPORTANT)

Picture 1: Gutenberg Printing Press

Question: - What was the importance of this invention?

A. Reduced handwritten manuscripts

B. Spread literacy and ideas

C. Made books cheaper

D. All of the above

✔ Answer: D

Picture 2: Woodblock Printing in China

Question: Which material was used for printing?

A. Stone

B. Wood

C. Metal

D. Paper only

✔ Answer: B

Picture 3: Newspaper during National Movement

Question: What role did newspapers play?

A. Supported British rule

B. Spread nationalist ideas

C. Discouraged education

D. Supported caste system

✔ Answer: B

Picture 4: Women Reading Books

Question: This picture reflects

A. Decline of education

B. Women empowerment through print

C. British policy

D. Religious reform

✔ Answer: B

Chapter 3: The Making of a Global World exam-oriented Important MCQs and Assertion–Reason questions

 Chapter 3: The Making of a Global World

 exam-oriented Important MCQs and Assertion–Reason questions 

MCQs

1. The Silk Routes were important because they

A. connected only China and India

B. connected Asia with Europe and North Africa

C. promoted slave trade

D. were used only for silk trade

✔ Answer: B

2. Which of the following goods were traded through Silk Routes?

A. Tea and coffee

B. Silk, spices, textiles, precious metals

C. Coal and iron

D. Cotton only

✔ Answer: B

3. The Silk Routes flourished mainly during

A. 7th–15th century

B. 1st–3rd century

C. 18th–19th century

D. 20th century

✔ Answer: A

4. Which religion spread through the Silk Routes?

A. Hinduism

B. Buddhism

C. Jainism

D. Sikhism

✔ Answer: B

5. Which food item travelled from China to Europe?

A. Potato

B. Maize

C. Spaghetti / Noodles

D. Tomato

✔ Answer: C

6. Potato was first introduced to Europe from

A. Asia

B. Africa

C. Americas

D. Australia

✔ Answer: C

7. Why did potato become popular in Europe?

A. Easy to grow and nutritious

B. Used as medicine

C. Luxury food

D. Imported from Africa

✔ Answer: A

8. Which continent was the original home of maize and potatoes?

A. Asia

B. Europe

C. Africa

D. Americas

✔ Answer: D

9. The Europeans conquered America mainly because

A. Better education

B. Powerful navy

C. Immunity to diseases

D. Strong economy

✔ Answer: C

10. Which disease killed millions of native Americans?

A. Cholera

B. Smallpox

C. Plague

D. Malaria

✔ Answer: B

11. Which continent suffered heavy population loss due to European diseases?

A. Africa

B. Asia

C. Europe

D. America

✔ Answer: D

12. The Columbian Exchange refers to

A. Exchange of students

B. Exchange of goods, crops, diseases between continents

C. Slave trade only

D. Silk trade

✔ Answer: B

13. The Silk Routes got their name mainly because

A. Silk was the only product traded

B. Silk was the most valuable product traded

C. Silk was traded only in China

D. Silk was produced in Europe

✔ Answer: B

14. Which region was NOT connected by the Silk Routes?

A. China

B. India

C. Europe

D. Australia

✔ Answer: D

15. Which of the following was spread by traders along Silk Routes?

A. Machines

B. Religions and ideas

C. Railways

D. Industries

✔ Answer: B

16. Which port was important for trade between Asia and Europe?

A. Calcutta

B. Surat

C. Constantinople

D. London

✔ Answer: C

17. What helped the Silk Routes to flourish?

A. Strong armies

B. Stable empires

C. Modern transport

D. Colonial rule

✔ Answer: B

18. Which traveller is believed to have brought noodles to Europe?

A. Ibn Battuta

B. Marco Polo

C. Vasco da Gama

D. Columbus

✔ Answer: B

19. Why were potatoes initially not accepted in Europe?

A. They were poisonous

B. They grew underground and were linked to disease

C. They were expensive

D. They were tasteless

✔ Answer: B

20. Which crop helped in fighting hunger and poverty in Europe?

A. Tea

B. Rice

C. Potato

D. Coffee

✔ Answer: C

21. Tomato was originally grown in

A. Europe

B. Asia

C. Africa

D. Americas

✔ Answer: D

22. Which of the following foods travelled from America to Europe?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Maize

D. Barley

✔ Answer: C

23. Which disease spread rapidly in America after European arrival?

A. Typhoid

B. Smallpox

C. Tuberculosis

D. Dengue

✔ Answer: B

24. Why did native Americans die in large numbers?

A. Poor food

B. War only

C. Lack of immunity to European diseases

D. Cold climate

✔ Answer: C

25. Which European power first conquered large parts of America?

A. England

B. France

C. Spain

D. Germany

✔ Answer: C

26. The spread of diseases resulted in

A. Population growth in America

B. Decline of native population

C. Increase in trade

D. Spread of education

✔ Answer: B

27. Which term describes the exchange of food crops, animals and diseases?

A. Industrial Exchange

B. Columbian Exchange

C. Silk Exchange

D. Cultural Exchange

✔ Answer: B

28. Which of the following best explains globalisation in the pre-modern world?

A. Use of internet

B. Trade and cultural links between distant regions

C. Industrialisation

D. Colonisation only

✔ Answer: B

29. Which crop led to rapid population growth in Europe?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Potato

D. Coffee

✔ Answer: C

30. Which factor helped Europeans establish control over new lands?

A. Education

B. Scientific knowledge

C. Immunity to diseases

D. Population

✔ Answer: C

31. The Silk Routes declined mainly due to

A. Spread of diseases

B. Discovery of sea routes

C. End of silk demand

D. Industrial revolution

✔ Answer: B

32. Which statement is correct?

A. Globalisation began in 20th century

B. Pre-modern trade was limited to Europe

C. Food habits changed due to trade

D. Silk Routes connected only China

✔ Answer: C

🔹 PART B: ASSERTION–REASON QUESTIONS

(Choose the correct option)

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

33. Assertion (A): Silk Routes played a major role in cultural exchange.

Reason (R): Traders carried religions, technologies and ideas along with goods.

✔ Answer: A

34. Assertion (A): Food habits of Europeans changed after the discovery of America.

Reason (R): Crops like potato and maize were introduced from the Americas.

✔ Answer: A

35. Assertion (A): Europe easily conquered America.

Reason (R): Europeans had immunity against many deadly diseases.

✔ Answer: A

36. Assertion (A): Spaghetti was originally an Italian food.

Reason (R): It travelled from China to Italy through trade routes.

✔ Answer: D

(Assertion is false, Reason is true)

37. Assertion (A): Diseases helped Europeans in colonial expansion.

Reason (R): Native Americans had no immunity to European diseases.

✔ Answer: A

38. Assertion (A): Globalisation is a modern phenomenon.

Reason (R): Trade and cultural exchanges existed even in pre-modern times.

✔ Answer: D

परीक्षा तनाव : कारण, पहचान और समाधान

परीक्षा तनाव : कारण, पहचान और समाधान

छात्रों में परीक्षा के दौरान तनाव होना स्वाभाविक है। यह तनाव इस बात का संकेत भी है कि छात्र अपने भविष्य को लेकर गंभीर है। लेकिन यह बिल्कुल भी सत्य नहीं है कि इस तनाव से निपटा नहीं जा सकता। यदि छात्र पूरी तैयारी, सही मार्गदर्शन और सकारात्मक सोच के साथ आगे बढ़े, तो वह इस तनाव को सरलता से नियंत्रित कर सकता है।

परंतु कई बार यह तनाव इतना अधिक बढ़ जाता है कि अर्थ का अनर्थ हो जाता है और वहीं से उन सपनों के टूटने की शुरुआत हो जाती है, जिन्हें छात्र और उनके अभिभावक वर्षों से संजोते आए होते हैं।

आज के वर्तमान युग में तनाव की बात तो सभी करते हैं, लेकिन इसके वास्तविक कारणों और समाधान पर खुलकर चर्चा बहुत कम होती है। विशेष रूप से वे अभिभावक, जो अपने बच्चों की रुचि, क्षमता और मानसिक स्थिति को समझे बिना समाज के दबाव में उन्हें शिक्षा और प्रतियोगिता की फैक्ट्रियों में एक मशीन की तरह झोंक देते हैं।

ऐसे अभिभावकों को बच्चों से एक प्रॉडक्ट की तरह सबसे अधिक अंकों की अपेक्षा होती है। अभिभावकों के अधूरे सपनों का बोझ ढोते-ढोते बच्चे घुटन और तनाव में जीने को मजबूर हो जाते हैं, जिसका परिणाम कई बार अत्यंत घातक रूप में सामने आता है।

यह प्रश्न अत्यंत गंभीर है कि अपने सपनों का बोझ बच्चों पर थोपना कहाँ तक उचित है? इसका उत्तर वे अभिभावक बेहतर दे सकते हैं जिन्होंने इसका दुष्परिणाम स्वयं झेला है।

छात्रों में तनाव के मुख्य कारण

आधुनिक तकनीक का अत्यधिक उपयोग – मोबाइल, सोशल मीडिया और ऑनलाइन गेम पढ़ाई से ध्यान भटकाते हैं।

समय पर तैयारी न करना – पाठ्यक्रम को अंतिम समय के लिए छोड़ देना।

टालमटोल की आदत – आज का काम कल पर छोड़ने की प्रवृत्ति।

बढ़ती प्रतिस्पर्धा – हर क्षेत्र में तीव्र प्रतियोगिता।

अभिभावकों और शिक्षकों का नकारात्मक रवैया – बार-बार तुलना और ताने।

अत्यधिक अपेक्षाएँ – बच्चे की क्षमता से अधिक उम्मीदें रखना।

तनाव की पहचान कैसे करें

बार-बार चिड़चिड़ापन या गुस्सा

नींद न आना या अधिक सोना

पढ़ाई से डर या अरुचि

आत्मविश्वास में कमी

सिरदर्द, पेट दर्द या थकान

खुद को दूसरों से कमतर समझना

यदि समय रहते इन संकेतों को पहचाना जाए, तो बड़ी समस्या से बचा जा सकता है।

तनाव से निपटने के समाधान

समय प्रबंधन – नियमित अध्ययन योजना बनाना।

वास्तविक लक्ष्य निर्धारण – क्षमता के अनुसार लक्ष्य तय करना।

ब्रेक और विश्राम – पढ़ाई के साथ खेल, योग और मनोरंजन।

सकारात्मक सोच – असफलता को सीख के रूप में स्वीकार करना।

संवाद – अपनी समस्या किसी विश्वसनीय व्यक्ति से साझा करना।

स्वस्थ दिनचर्या – संतुलित आहार और पर्याप्त नींद।

अभिभावकों के लिए सुझाव

बच्चों की तुलना दूसरों से न करें।

उनकी रुचि और क्षमता को समझें।

अंकों से अधिक प्रयास और ईमानदारी को महत्व दें।

असफलता में भी बच्चे का साथ दें।

संवाद का वातावरण बनाए रखें, डर का नहीं।

शिक्षकों के लिए सुझाव

छात्रों के प्रति संवेदनशील और सहानुभूतिपूर्ण दृष्टिकोण रखें।

केवल परिणाम नहीं, बल्कि प्रक्रिया को महत्व दें।

कमजोर छात्रों को हतोत्साहित नहीं, प्रेरित करें।

पढ़ाई को बोझ नहीं, सीखने का आनंद बनाएं।

निष्कर्ष

परीक्षा जीवन का एक महत्वपूर्ण चरण है, लेकिन यही जीवन नहीं है। यदि छात्र, अभिभावक और शिक्षक मिलकर सकारात्मक वातावरण बनाएं, तो परीक्षा का तनाव एक समस्या नहीं बल्कि आत्मविकास का अवसर बन सकता है।

याद रखें—सफलता से अधिक महत्वपूर्ण है एक स्वस्थ और खुशहाल जीवन।

Nationalism in India MCQs – Assertation- Reason Picture Based Questions

 Chapter 2 - Nationalism in India

Nationalism in India MCQs – Assertation- Reason Picture Based Questions

 MCQs

1. Who led the Khilafat Movement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Maulana Azad

Ans: B

2. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?

A. 1913

B. 1914

C. 1915

D. 1916

Ans: C

3. Which Act gave the British government power to detain political prisoners without trial?

A. Government of India Act

B. Rowlatt Act

C. Regulating Act

D. Pitt’s India Act

Ans: B

4. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in:

A. 1917

B. 1918

C. 1919

D. 1920

Ans: C

5. Who was the British officer responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

A. General Dyer

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Irwin

D. General Smuts

Ans: A

6. Which movement was launched in 1920?

A. Civil Disobedience Movement

B. Quit India Movement

C. Non-Cooperation Movement

D. Khilafat Movement

Ans: C

7. Which of the following was NOT a part of Non-Cooperation Movement?

A. Boycott of foreign goods

B. Renunciation of titles

C. Refusal to pay taxes

D. Boycott of law courts

Ans: C

8. Why was the Non-Cooperation Movement withdrawn?

A. British repression

B. Failure of Khilafat Movement

C. Chauri Chaura incident

D. Simon Commission

Ans: C

9. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred in:

A. 1920

B. 1921

C. 1922

D. 1923

Ans: C

10. What was the main aim of the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. To boycott foreign goods

B. To violate British laws peacefully

C. To demand separate electorates

D. To support Khilafat

Ans: B

11. The Dandi March started on:

A. 12 March 1930

B. 15 August 1930

C. 26 January 1930

D. 5 April 1930

Ans: A

12. Dandi is located in which present-day state?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Odisha

Ans: B

13. The Salt Law was broken to protest against:

A. High land revenue

B. Forced labour

C. British monopoly over salt

D. Unemployment

Ans: C

14. Who designed the Swaraj Flag?

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Pingali Venkayya

D. Lala Lajpat Rai

Ans: C

15. The spinning wheel (Charkha) symbolised:

A. Industrial growth

B. Modernisation

C. Self-reliance

D. British authority

Ans: C

16. Which social group participated actively in the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Plantation workers

B. Rich peasants

C. Industrialists

D. All of the above

Ans: D

17. Why did industrialists support the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. To abolish zamindari

B. To gain political power

C. To oppose high taxes and colonial policies

D. To support peasants

Ans: C

18. Why did Dalits not fully support the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Lack of leadership

B. Fear of British power

C. Demand for separate electorates

D. Language problem

Ans: C

19. Who organised the Depressed Classes Association?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Sardar Patel

Ans: B

20. The Poona Pact was signed in:

A. 1930

B. 1931

C. 1932

D. 1933

Ans: C

21. The Poona Pact was between:

A. Congress and Muslim League

B. Gandhi and Ambedkar

C. British and Congress

D. Dalits and Muslims

Ans: B

22. Which agreement ended the Civil Disobedience Movement temporarily?

A. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

B. Poona Pact

C. Lucknow Pact

D. Lahore Resolution

Ans: A

23. Who called off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1934?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Subhas Chandra Bose

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. C.R. Das

Ans: C

24. What did the concept of “Swaraj” mean?

A. Economic freedom

B. Complete independence

C. Self-rule

D. Social equality

Ans: C

25. Which folk song became a symbol of nationalism in Bengal?

A. Vande Mataram

B. Jana Gana Mana

C. Rabindra Sangeet

D. Bharat Mata Ki Jai

Ans: A

26. Who painted the image of Bharat Mata?

A. Nandalal Bose

B. Abanindranath Tagore

C. Raja Ravi Varma

D. Jamini Roy

Ans: B

27. Why did plantation workers join the Non-Cooperation Movement?

A. For higher wages

B. For freedom to move freely

C. For land ownership

D. To support Congress

Ans: B

28. What was the main reason for peasants’ participation in nationalism?

A. High land revenue

B. Forced recruitment

C. Lack of education

D. Religious issues

Ans: A

29. Which newspaper spread nationalist ideas?

A. The Hindu

B. Kesari

C. Amrita Bazar Patrika

D. All of the above

Ans: D

30. The Simon Commission was boycotted because:

A. It had no Indian member

B. It proposed partition

C. It increased taxes

D. It supported British rule

Ans: A

31. Which slogan became popular during Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Jai Hind

B. Inquilab Zindabad

C. Purna Swaraj

D. Do or Die

Ans: C

32. The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 was presided by:

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Sardar Patel

D. Subhas Chandra Bose

Ans: B

33. Why did Muslim participation decline in the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Economic issues

B. Communal riots

C. British pressure

D. Failure of Congress

Ans: B

34. Which tax was protested during Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Income tax

B. Salt tax

C. House tax

D. Trade tax

Ans: B

35. Which leader gave the call for “Purna Swaraj”?

A. Gandhi

B. Nehru

C. Bose

D. Ambedkar

Ans: B

36. What was the main method used by Gandhi?

A. Violence

B. Revolutionary activities

C. Satyagraha

D. Military action

Ans: C

37. What does Satyagraha mean?

A. Armed struggle

B. Passive resistance

C. Force of truth

D. Political pressure

Ans: C

38. Why was khadi promoted?

A. To create jobs

B. To reduce poverty

C. To boycott foreign cloth

D. All of the above

Ans: D

39. Which group feared losing power after independence?

A. Rich peasants

B. Industrialists

C. Upper caste Hindus

D. Some Muslims

Ans: D

40. What did nationalists try to revive?

A. Ancient trade

B. Folk traditions

C. British laws

D. Western culture

Ans: B

41. Who wrote “Hind Swaraj”?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Tilak

Ans: C

42. Why did women participate in nationalist movements?

A. Forced participation

B. For equality and freedom

C. For political posts

D. For British support

Ans: B

43. Which movement marked the beginning of mass nationalism?

A. Civil Disobedience

B. Quit India

C. Non-Cooperation

D. Swadeshi

Ans: C

44. What role did folklore play in nationalism?

A. Spread British ideas

B. Promoted unity and pride

C. Created divisions

D. Supported colonial rule

Ans: B

45. Why was foreign cloth burnt?

A. Protest against inflation

B. To show anger

C. To promote Indian industries

D. For entertainment

Ans: C

46. What was the main objective of Congress?

A. British cooperation

B. Dominion status

C. Complete independence

D. Social reforms

Ans: C

47. Which class felt disappointed after Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Women

B. Dalits

C. Rich peasants

D. Industrialists

Ans: B

48. What was the role of students in nationalism?

A. Boycott schools

B. Join British services

C. Support British rule

D. Remain neutral

Ans: A

49. Why did the British fear nationalist movements?

A. Loss of power

B. Economic loss

C. International pressure

D. All of the above

Ans: D

50. Nationalism united Indians by:

A. Religion

B. Language

C. Shared struggle against colonial rule

D. Caste

Ans: C

ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS

For each question, choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A): The Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians.

Reason (R): It allowed detention without trial.

Answer: A

2. Assertion: The Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn in 1922.

Reason: The Chauri Chaura incident turned violent.

Answer: A

3. Assertion: Mahatma Gandhi believed non-violence could unite Indians.

Reason: Violence leads to hatred and division.

Answer: A

4. Assertion: The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the Salt March.

Reason: Salt was an essential item used by all sections of society.

Answer: A

5. Assertion: Rich peasants supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Reason: They wanted reduction in land revenue.

Answer: A

6. Assertion: Poor peasants did not fully support the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Reason: Congress did not include their demands for rent reduction.

Answer: A

7. Assertion: Industrialists supported the nationalist movement.

Reason: British policies restricted Indian industries.

Answer: A

8. Assertion: Dalits participated less in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Reason: Congress ignored their demand for separate electorates.

Answer: A

9. Assertion: The Poona Pact brought Gandhiji and Dr. Ambedkar together.

Reason: It gave reserved seats to the Depressed Classes.

Answer: A

10. Assertion: Muslim participation declined in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Reason: Communal riots created distrust between communities.

Answer: A

11. Assertion: Plantation workers joined the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Reason: They wanted freedom to leave plantations.

Answer: A

12. Assertion: The Swaraj Flag became a symbol of national unity.

Reason: It carried the spinning wheel representing self-reliance.

Answer: A

13. Assertion: Folk songs and folklore played an important role in nationalism.

Reason: They promoted pride in Indian culture.

Answer: A

14. Assertion: The image of Bharat Mata inspired nationalism.

Reason: It represented India as a mother figure.

Answer: A

15. Assertion: The Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended in 1931.

Reason: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed.

Answer: A

16. Assertion: Khadi was promoted during the national movement.

Reason: It helped boycott foreign goods and promote self-dependence.

Answer: A

17. Assertion: Students actively participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Reason: National schools were opened to replace British institutions.

Answer: A

18. Assertion: Gandhiji withdrew movements when they became violent.

Reason: He believed violence was morally wrong.

Answer: A

19. Assertion: Nationalism spread through newspapers and journals.

Reason: They created awareness among people.

Answer: A

20. Assertion: Different groups had different interpretations of nationalism.

Reason: Their economic and social interests were different.

Answer: A

IMPORTANT PICTURE-BASED QUESTIONS

Picture-Based Question 1: Dandi March

Q1. Identify the movement shown in the picture.

Ans: Civil Disobedience Movement / Salt March

Q2. Who led this movement?

Ans: Mahatma Gandhi

Q3. Why was salt chosen as a symbol of protest?

Ans: Salt was a basic necessity and the British had monopoly over it.

Picture-Based Question 2: Charkha (Spinning Wheel)

Q1. What does the spinning wheel symbolise?

Ans: Self-reliance and swadeshi

Q2. Which movement promoted this symbol?

Ans: Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movements

Picture-Based Question 3: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

Q1. Which event is shown in the picture?

Ans: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

Q2. In which year did it occur?

Ans: 1919

Q3. Name the British officer responsible.

Ans: General Dyer

Picture-Based Question 4: Bharat Mata Image

Q1. Who painted this image?

Ans: Abanindranath Tagore

Q2. What was the purpose of this image?

Ans: To inspire nationalism and unity

Picture-Based Question 5: Burning of Foreign Clothes

Q1. Which movement does this activity belong to?

Ans: Non-Cooperation Movement

Q2. Why were foreign clothes burnt?

Ans: To boycott British goods and promote Indian industries

Picture-Based Question 6: Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Q1. Name the agreement shown.

Ans: Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Q2. What was its result?

Ans: Suspension of Civil Disobedience Movement

Picture-Based Question 7: Salt Law Protest

Q1. Which law was violated here?

Ans: Salt Law

Q2. Which movement does it relate to?

Ans: Civil Disobedience Movement

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe MCQs – Assertation- Reason Picture Based Questions

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

• MCQs –  
• Assertation- Reason
• Picture Based Questions

1. The first clear expression of nationalism in Europe came with—

A. French Revolution

B. Russian Revolution

C. Industrial Revolution

D. Vienna Congress

Answer: A

2. What was a major feature of the French Revolution?

A. Creation of a parliament

B. Removal of monarchy

C. Transfer of sovereignty to the people

D. Division of France into provinces

Answer: C

3. Who introduced the Civil Code of 1804?

A. Cavour

B. Garibaldi

C. Napoleon

D. Metternich

Answer: C

4. Which of the following reforms was NOT introduced by Napoleon?

A. Uniform civil code

B. Abolition of feudal system

C. Creation of a new aristocracy

D. Uniform system of weights and measures

Answer: C

5. What was the main purpose of the Zollverein?

A. Political unification

B. Military control

C. Economic unification

D. Religious unity

Answer: C

6. In which year was the Frankfurt Parliament convened?

A. 1815

B. 1848

C. 1832

D. 1871

Answer: B

7. Which class dominated the Frankfurt Parliament?

A. Peasants

B. Workers

C. Middle-class professionals

D. Aristocrats

Answer: C

8. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in 1871?

A. William I of Prussia

B. Bismarck

C. Adolf Hitler

D. Kaiser Friedrich

Answer: A

9. Which of the following was NOT a part of the 1848 revolutions?

A. Demand for written constitution

B. Demand for parliamentary government

C. Demand for unity among nationalities

D. Demand for military dictatorship

Answer: D

10. The unification of Italy was completed in—

A. 1832

B. 1848

C. 1861

D. 1871

Answer: D

11. The Italian state that led the unification movement was—

A. Venice

B. Sardinia–Piedmont

C. Lombardy

D. Rome

Answer: B

12. Who was the Prime Minister of Sardinia–Piedmont?

A. Cavour

B. Mazzini

C. Garibaldi

D. Napoleon III

Answer: A

13. Which philosopher used folk tales as a tool of nationalism?

A. Johann Fichte

B. Herder

C. Rousseau

D. Montesquieu

Answer: B

14. Which country supported Greek independence?

A. England

B. France

C. Russia

D. All of the above

Answer: D

15. The allegory representing the German nation was—

A. Marianne

B. Germania

C. Britannia

D. Helvetia

Answer: B

16. The main demand of the Treaty of Vienna was:

A. To divide France

B. Restore conservative monarchies

C. Promote liberal ideas

D. Support nationalist leaders

Answer: B

17. Which war completed the unification of Germany?

A. Austro-Prussian War

B. Franco–Prussian War

C. Seven Weeks’ War

D. Danish War

Answer: B

18. The famous painting “Liberty Leading the People” was created by—

A. Delacroix

B. Picasso

C. Sorrieu

D. Turner

Answer: A

19. Who said: “Italy has made itself by its own strength”?

A. Bismarck

B. Cavour

C. Mazzini

D. Metternich

Answer: C

20. Which of the following was a direct result of the French Revolution?

A. End of absolute monarchy

B. Emergence of republic

C. Spread of nationalism

D. All of the above

Answer: D

21. The Habsburg Empire ruled over—

A. A culturally diverse population

B. Only Germans

C. Only Italians

D. Only French

Answer: A

22. Who led the movement for Polish language revival?

A. Clergy

B. Students

C. Nobles

D. Businessmen

Answer: A

23. Which of the following was NOT an outcome of the 1830 Revolution in France?

A. Fall of Bourbon monarchy

B. Louis Philippe became king

C. France became a republic

D. People established constitutional monarchy

Answer: C

24. Which event symbolises the end of feudalism in Europe?

A. French Revolution

B. Treaty of Vienna

C. Greek War

D. Unification of Germany

Answer: A

25. What did the Romantics believe?

A. Mathematics is superior

B. We should glorify science

C. Feelings, emotions and national spirit matter

D. Art is unnecessary

Answer: C

26. Sorrieu’s painting shows the march of nations towards—

A. Stateless society

B. Democracy and liberty

C. Dictatorship

D. Socialism

Answer: B

27. Which constitution offered to the Prussian King by the Frankfurt Parliament was rejected because—

A. It was too liberal

B. It was too conservative

C. It was incomplete

D. It lacked equality

Answer: A

28. Which one of the following was not a part of the Revolutionary ideology?

A. Equality

B. Liberty

C. Fraternity

D. Serfdom

Answer: D

29. Which year is known as the “Year of Revolutions”?

A. 1789

B. 1815

C. 1848

D. 1871

Answer: C

30. Which of these symbols is associated with Marianne?

A. Cap of liberty

B. Olive branch

C. Red flag

D. Both A and B

Answer: D

31. What was the significance of oak leaves in German allegory?

A. Peace

B. Strength and heroism

C. Trade

D. Agriculture

Answer: B

32. The three colours of the French flag stand for—

A. Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

B. Religion, Law, Order

C. Army, Navy, Airforce

D. None

Answer: A

33. Which treaty ended the Napoleonic wars?

A. Treaty of Vienna

B. Treaty of Versailles

C. Treaty of Constantinople

D. Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

Answer: A

34. Who hosted the Congress of Vienna in 1815?

A. Kaiser William I

B. Otto von Bismarck

C. Duke Metternich

D. Giuseppe Garibaldi

Answer: C

35. The term ‘Nation-State’ refers to—

A. A state ruled by foreign powers

B. A state whose people share a common identity

C. A state governed by the army

D. A state formed by dynasties

Answer: B

36. Who was the leader of the unification of Germany?

A. Mazzini

B. Bismarck

C. Napoleon

D. Metternich

Answer: B

37. Which country became a nation-state after the 1830 revolution?

A. Germany

B. Belgium

C. Italy

D. Poland

Answer: B

38. Who was the founder of Young Italy?

A. Garibaldi

B. Bismarck

C. Mazzini

D. Victor Emmanuel II

Answer: C

39. Who was proclaimed the King of united Italy?

A. Garibaldi

B. Victor Emmanuel II

C. Cavour

D. Mazzini

Answer: B

40. Which philosopher said that “the state has no right to interfere in individual’s freedom”?

A. Johann Fichte

B. Montesquieu

C. Rousseau

D. Voltaire

Answer: C

41. The famous painting ‘Germania’ was prepared by—

A. Lorenz Clasen

B. Delacroix

C. Daumier

D. Zolle

Answer: A

42. Who defeated Napoleon in the Battle of Waterloo (1815)?

A. Duke Metternich

B. King Louis XVIII

C. Duke of Wellington

D. Giuseppe Garibaldi

Answer: C

43. Which of the following is NOT associated with liberal nationalism?

A. Freedom of press

B. Equality before law

C. Freedom of markets

D. Absence of private property

Answer: D

44. Zollverein was a—

A. Customs union

B. Military alliance

C. Political club

D. Liberal organisation

Answer: A

45. Who formed the Red Shirts?

A. Mazzini

B. Cavour

C. Garibaldi

D. Napoleon

Answer: C

46. “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold” was said by—

A. Bismarck

B. Metternich

C. Cavour

D. Napoleon

Answer: B

47. The allegory of France is—

A. Germania

B. Britannia

C. Marianne

D. Italia Turrita

Answer: C

B. ASSERTION–REASON QUESTIONS (10)

Q1.

Assertion (A): The Treaty of Vienna (1815) restored monarchies in Europe.

Reason (R): The participants at Vienna wanted to bring back the conservative order.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

Q2.

A: Liberal nationalism stressed on freedom and equality.

R: Liberal nationalism rejected the concept of government by consent.

Answer: C

Q3.

A: Zollverein helped in economic unification of Germany.

R: It abolished internal custom duties.

Answer: A

Q4.

A: Mazzini was against monarchy.

R: He wanted to establish a democratic republic.

Answer: A

Q5.

A: Italy was unified in 1871.

R: Rome was the last state to join Italy.

Answer: A

Q6.

A: Nationalism in Europe was closely linked with culture.

R: Folk songs, dances, and poetry created a sense of shared heritage.

Answer: A

Q7.

A: Napoleon’s administrative reforms were welcomed by the people.

R: His army brought destruction and conflicts wherever they went.

Answer: B

Q8.

A: Greece became an independent nation in 1832.

R: Greek War of Independence got support from artists and poets of Europe.

Answer: A

Q9.

A: The Frankfurt Parliament failed to unify Germany.

R: The King of Prussia refused to accept the crown offered by the parliament.

Answer: A

Q10.

A: Ireland was divided into two parts.

R: The southern part gained independence but the northern remained under the UK.

Answer: A

C. PICTURE-BASED QUESTIONS (HIGHLY IMPORTANT FOR CBSE)

1. Picture of “Germania” (Female figure with crown & sword)

Question: Identify the allegory and explain any two features visible in the image.

Answer:

The figure is Germania, symbol of German nation.

Features:

Sword – readiness to fight.

Crown of oak leaves – heroism.

Breastplate with eagle – German strength.

2. Picture: “Marianne” (Female figure representing France)

Question: What does the image represent? Mention any two symbols.

Answer:

Represents French nation.

Symbols:

Red cap of liberty

Tricolour flag

Olive branch (peace)

3. Picture: “The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republic – 1848” (Painter: Frederic Sorrieu)

Question: What message does the painting convey?

Answer:

Shows people of nations marching towards Statue of Liberty.

Symbolizes rise of democratic & national ideals.

Represents the hope for a world of nations.

4. Picture: Italian unification map

Question: Identify the leader who led the expedition of the thousand.

Answer:

Giuseppe Garibaldi.

5. Picture: Bismarck with sword / German unification map

Question: How did Bismarck unify Germany?

Answer:

Through policy of "Blood and Iron"

Led three wars (Denmark, Austria, France)

6. Picture: Congress of Vienna sitting

Question: What was the main aim of the Congress of Vienna?

Answer:

To restore monarchies.

To create balance of power in Europe.